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Great Expectations

HopeThe Chris Cook Economics 3.0 column

A piece of research by Goldman Sachs which I came across in the Financial Times Alphaville “walled garden” today had much to say on the subject of consumers' fear of inflation and discussed whether or not this could itself drive inflation. One assumption was:

“Suppose every firm and consumer in the economy woke up one morning to expect 5% inflation”

and one conclusion was:

"A shift up in household inflation expectations could ignite a broad-based surge in inflation, but we see no sign that this is under way".

This reminded me of my long standing conviction – from my admittedly untutored perspective of Coarse Economics – that such inflationary expectations are yet another example of an assumption which is complete bollocks but which  conveniently justifies the otherwise unjustifiable.

Now one of the key reasons for the property bubble was the completely pervasive view that house prices can only ever go up. So it has demonstrably been the case  that the average punter has inflationary expectations in respect of land prices (since buildings depreciate).  By definition, inflationary expectations underpin all asset bubbles, which have with few, if any, exceptions been driven since John Law's Mississippi Bubble by excessive creation of credit by credit intermediaries aka banks.

But retail prices are another matter altogether.  The people who inhabit the real world outside neoclassical economics do not tend to think:

“Hmmm.....I expect that retail prices will rise by 5% in the next year, therefore I will ask for a 5% pay increase plus a bit.”

They think

“Bloody hell, prices have gone up 5% and I need a pay rise to keep pace, plus a bit”.

In other words, if prices do not rise much – or even fall, and of course deflation would be a wonderful thing if only our money did not consist of interest-bearing debt – then there would be little or no pressure for much more than modest wage increases. But we have drummed into us that employees/consumers do not think this way.  

The inflationary expectations of employees could lead to inflationary wage increases, and must therefore be beaten out of them at all costs.

But then on Planet Neoclassical there is never a good time for wages to increase. In a growing economy, wage increases may choke off growth; in a level economy, wage increases will prevent growth; and in a recession of course, wage increases are unthinkable, because they will make the recession worse.

Bollocks again. Capitalists like Henry Ford knew that if he paid his workers poorly then they could never afford his cars. That piece of economic common sense appears to have been forgotten.

I have never understood why it is that to increase wage costs is inflationary; whereas to increase interest rates   from 2% to 3% (which is a 50% increase in a financial cost) is not only not inflationary of retail prices but  is in fact, the Voodoo Economics cure for such inflation.

It gets worse, though.

If a manufacturer raises prices either because he has the “pricing power” to do so (through a monopoly or cartel) - or simply because he is able to maintain an arbitrary profit margin – then such price increases are by definition inflationary. Well, actually in the fantasy world of Neoclassical Economics such  maintenance or increase of the return to Capital is apparently not inflationary, although increasing the return to Labour is.

Strange, that.

In case you hadn't gathered, conventional Economics has nothing whatever to do with the real world we inhabit and everything to do with justifying an outcome convenient for the owners of financial capital.

As JK Galbraith memorably put it:

"Modern conservatives engage in one of man's oldest exercises in moral philosophy: the search for a superior moral justification for selfishness".

Posted on Jun 10, 2009 at 10:20am

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When does a financial capital become an interest? Well, businessman used to explain it to us. Since transportation and manufacture of goods all hinge on the price of oil imports and exports, any change in the price of goods or oil create ripples. For instance, a recession causes the price of goods to drop, due to less demand. Thus, the revenues decrease for oil producing nations, especially OPEC, which leads to them raising prices to compensate. The rise in prices causes the price of goods to rise, and therefore people needing to borrow money, along with corporations and governments, to compensate for the rising costs of goods, services, and also oil.
Charlotte F @ 11 weeks and 2 days ago
"An increase in wages for no increase in productivity raises the cost of production and hence the price of goods."

This is only the case if the business owner is able to raise prices to maintain his profit margin.

Why is the maintenance or increase of an arbitrary - profit maximising - rate of return not inflationary?

Interest rates are and always have been arbitrary.

Credit created by central banks need cost nothing at any time. eg notes and coin have only a printing and distribution cost.

The entirely ideological conventional wisdom has it that credit created ex nihilo by the public sector is "inflationary", and yet that credit created ex nihilo by the private sector which includes a handsome profit is not inflationary.

Bollocks again, and moreover, bollocks which has been swept under the carpet for 100 years or so, and 100 different modern economists will give you 100 different explanations of "Money" - all of them wrong.

Credit created by credit institutions has no cost at the time of creation. The components of its "cost" over time consist of the cost of operation, default costs and the rate of profit demanded by shareholders.

Financial capital has no cost either, but it does have a price, which is usually set at unsustainable greedy bastard rates of return.

Inflation is IMHO actually caused by a combination of:

(a) deficit-based money - ie the practice of fractional reserve banking;

(b) fiscal deficits -ie the excess of government expenditure (other than investment) over income;

(c) the profit motive.









Chris Cook @ 39 weeks and 1 day ago
I think what you are talking about is the wage-price spiral?

An increase in wages for no increase in productivity raises the cost of production and hence the price of goods.

Which is inflationary on consumption. Of course, depending on the elasticity of demand and the extent of competition and barriers to entry of that marketplace.

You have missed out quite a few variables before getting to your conclusion.

In terms of interest rates, they are immediately tied to the return on investment which is much lower in the production chain than wages. Wages are a payment for labour using the plant and capital created from investment.

If an investment is more expensive then more must be returned by labour to cover the cost of deploying the capital. Therefore, it must be more productive.

Which is counter-inflationary.

The converse is true, if labour is more expensive than capital, then firms will opt to deploy more capital (as plant, for example) to lower unit costs.

Which is counter-inflationary.
Mike Thomas @ 39 weeks and 2 days ago